[Aztlan] Indian ?
Susan Gilchrist
gilchrist.susan at gmail.com
Sat Sep 23 14:03:45 CDT 2006
I wonder, does anybody think of it in terms of East Indies-West Indies
and East India Company-West India Company? In other words Spain
had the new-to-Europeans parts of half the world and Portugal had the
other half. So it seems like a short way of saying "people in the parts of
the world that were assigned to Spain and Portugal," and the question
is why they didn't call the people in Africa indios too.
Also, in the United States nowadays there's a legal connotation, in
other words if there's no such thing as an Indian then people start
appropriating bones and arguing against sovereignty, accusing
Indians of creationism and shamanism, etc. So kids wearing NDN
and FBI t-shirts have a point. But if you're writing about Spanish
speakers there's no exact equivalent of NDN or FBI, so I don't know
what the answer to the dilemma is.
Susan Gilchrist
http://elboscoblog.blogspot.com/
On 9/23/06, D. M. Urquidi <deamayaspin at yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> David:
>
> According to Leon Portilla's Canciones the indigenous people of Mexico
> or CA considered themselves foreigners a long, time before we
> became "Americans"
>
> Dea
>
> When Indigenous people of "Mexico" or "Central America" cross the
> political
> border of the U.S.A, they are not considered "American" nor "North
> American", in fact they are considered Immigrants to the land of their
> relatives, they are considered Aliens in their homeland of Anahuac.
>
> Mayans are as much "Asian/Indian" as the French are "Meshica/Aztec".
>
> Regards,
>
> Pancho Becraft
>
>
>
>
>
>
> >From: "Justin Kerr"
> >To: "'Michael Finley'"
> >CC: Aztlan at lists.famsi.org
> >Subject: RE: [Aztlan] Indian ?
> >Date: Tue, 19 Sep 2006 22:44:16 -0400
> >
> >To all,
> >I scan the paragraph in question, it follows below:
> >
> >
> >Throughout this book, as the reader already will have noticed, I use the
> >term "Indian" to refer to the first inhabitants of the Americas. No
> >question
> >about it, Indian is a confusing and historically inappropriate name.
> >Probably the most accurate descriptor for the original inhabitants of the
> >Americas is Americans. Actually using it, though, would be risking worse
> >confusion. In this book I try to refer to people by the names they call
> >themselves. The overwhelming majority of the indigenous peoples whom I
> have
> >met in both North and South America describe themselves as Indians. (For
> >more about nomenclature, see Appendix A, "Loaded Words.")
> >
> >-----Original Message-----
> >From: aztlan-bounces at lists.famsi.org
> >[mailto:aztlan-bounces at lists.famsi.org]
> >On Behalf Of Michael Finley
> >Sent: Tuesday, September 19, 2006 7:29 PM
> >Cc: Aztlan at lists.famsi.org
> >Subject: Re: [Aztlan] Indian ?
> >
> >Justin Kerr wrote:
> >
> > >In the preface, page XI, 4th paragraph, Charles Mann explains his use
> of
> >the
> > >word "Indian".
> > >
> > >_______________________________________________
> > >Aztlan mailing list
> > >Aztlan at lists.famsi.org
> > >http://www.famsi.org/mailman/listinfo/aztlan
> > >
> > >
> > >
> >I've followed this thread with interest, but haven't had a chance to see
> >the book yet. I wonder if Justin or someone could brief me on Mann's
> >explanation. Is it just convenience since "Indian" is the term used
> >in his sources?
> >
> >Michael Finley
> >
> >
> >_______________________________________________
> >Aztlan mailing list
> >Aztlan at lists.famsi.org
> >http://www.famsi.org/mailman/listinfo/aztlan
> >
> >
> >_______________________________________________
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> >Aztlan at lists.famsi.org
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>
>
> _______________________________________________
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>
>
>
> D. M. Urquidi
> dmu Ink
> P.O. Box 49485
> Austin, Texas 78765-49485
> http://www.mayalords.org
> http://groups.yahoo.com/group/ancientamericas/
>
>
>
>
>
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