[Aztlan] why "the maya"

[David Hixson]

> David Hixson wrote:
> > The widely printed (but largely unsubstantiated)
> story that the term "Yucatan" derives from a
> misunderstanding between the Maya and Spaniards

--- Jules Siegel <jules at cafecancun.com> wrote:
> Why do you consider the story unsubstantiated?

Perhaps I should have said "as yet indemonstrable".  I
have spoken with a few Maya linguists, and I have yet
to find anyone who can actually form the phrases that
have been proposed using proper Maya grammar (the
forms that you quoted are not how either of those
phrases should be written or spoken).  Thus, the story
may be true, but no one has come up with the actual
phrase that may have been uttered.  So, even though
these sources have great antiquity, it remains a
possible folk etymology.

And I will respect Randa's comments and refrain from
further on-list discussion regarding "Maya" and
"Mayan".  She is correct that this has been discussed
many times on this list, and those interested may wish
to delve through the archives to see what's been said
in the past.  I will only re-emphasize that the
answer to the listero's question of whether it is
rude or offensive to the Maya to call them Mayan is:
no it is not.  It's just an english grammatical
convention that is (clearly) debatable.

-Dave


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